[Fwd: Re: [Fwd: Re: Mark 11:22 God's faith or faith in God?]]

From: Lee R. Martin (lmartin@voyageronline.net)
Date: Fri Feb 21 1997 - 13:54:57 EST

attached mail follows:

James H. Vellenga wrote:
> > From: "Lee R. Martin" <lmartin@voyageronline.net>

> > Dear Michael,
> > Two items:
> > 1- How then, would you explain James 2:1 "Do not have the faith of
> > Christ with partiality"?
> On the other hand, how does one explain "Do not have the faith in Christ
> with partiality"? The passage requires interpretation either way,
> and so does not serve to distinguish among the genitives.

Correct, and I am asking for your interpretations/explanations. What is
the meaning of James 2:1?

> My personal inclination is to interpret this passage as "Have a
> commitment of God's" -- i.e., in the absence of the definite article,
> to interpret this as a personal commitment that derives in some
> way from God.

When the noun (faith) is followed by a definite noun in the genitive
(God), the article is not always necessary. Some think this is a
Semitism based upon the rules of the Hebrew genitive, where the article
is never attached to the noun that precedes a definite noun. Cf. the
LXX of Gen. 1:2; 1:27; 5:1; 9:6; 21:17; 28:17; 33:10; 35:5; 41:38; Ex.
3:1; ad infinitum. All of these are definite in the Hebrew, but do not
have the article in the LXX.

Lee R. Martin
Part-Time Instructor in Hebrew and Biblical Studies
Church of God Theological Seminary
Cleveland, TN 37311
Pastor, Prospect Church of God

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