Re: Mark 11:22 God's faith or faith in God?

From: Micheal Palmer (
Date: Sun Feb 23 1997 - 00:32:53 EST

At 10:34 AM -0800 2/21/97, Lee R. Martin wrote:
>Micheal Palmer wrote:
>> At 6:14 PM -0800 2/20/97, Lee R. Martin wrote:
>> >Dear Michael,
>> >Two items:
>> >1- How then, would you explain James 2:1 "Do not have the faith of
>> >Christ with partiality"?
>> James 2:1 My brothers [& sisters], do you, with your acts of
>> favoritism, really have [exhibit?] the faith that our Lord Jesus Christ
>> had? [Implied answer: No]
>You are translating James 2:1 as a question? Then how do you know that
>Mark 11:22 is an imperative? The imperative of exw is very rare (I
>found only four, including James 2:1). This rarity of imperatives leads
>to even more ambiguity in Mark 11:22.

I don't quite follow. Are you suggesting that my translation of James 2:1
is somehow connected to my translation of Mark 11:22?

If it is, it would be a total surprise to me.

My translation of James 2:1 as a question was simply a mistake. Responding
to b-greek posts at 11:45 pm can do that to you! :-) Still, making it a
question or an imperative would not change the point that *I* was making

Micheal W. Palmer
Religion & Philosophy
Meredith College

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