From: lakr (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Feb 25 1997 - 11:50:05 EST
I am studying participles in Mounce's textbook - chapter 30.
It starts with an exegetical example and uses
Rev 3:8 "QURAN HNEWGMENHN" as an example where the NIV,KJV
and NASB are "weak" and "inadequate". The commentator makes the
point that the perfect passive participle should be translated
"an opened door" as oposed to "an open door". This makes sense to
me, as I suppose in English this would be considered a past
Is there another side to this issue ?
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