From: Ronald Wong (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Feb 25 1997 - 18:08:07 EST
> I am studying participles in Mounce's textbook - chapter 30.
> It starts with an exegetical example and uses
> Rev 3:8 "QURAN HNEWGMENHN" as an example where the NIV,KJV
> and NASB are "weak" and "inadequate". The commentator makes the
> point that the perfect passive participle should be translated
> "an opened door" as oposed to "an open door". This makes sense to
> me, as I suppose in English this would be considered a past
> Is there another side to this issue ?
> Larry Kruper
I'm not sure exactly what other side issue you're looking for....but
Rienecker helps in this way instead of translating it as "an opened
door"....to get the sense of the participle he says "a door standing
open." He also suggest that the perfect tense as you know...indicates
not only the perfected action in past time but the "continuing
condition." I guess a more 'elaborate' translation would be " a door
which has been standing open." --to get the full effect of both the
perf. and and the passive....
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