From: Martin A. Childs (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Mar 08 1997 - 05:02:26 EST
I do not understand the morphology sufficiently to determine the
distinction between the "legete" form of Strong's <3004> and the "legeis"
They both appear to be capable of expressing indicative mood. Yet, the
former is also capable of being either indicative or imperative.
For examples of the former see: John 13:13 and Acts 13:15. For the
latter, I am looking specifically at Luke 23:3. I cannot find a place
where the latter form is tagged as being imperative.
The OnLine Bible lexicon says that the word in Luke 23:3 is in the
indicative mood, but the context pretty clearly seems to require the
imperative to me. Is the form of the word here capable of being either
mood like the "legete"
form or must it be read as merely indicative?
Martin A. Childs
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