From: Edgar Krentz (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu May 08 1997 - 10:33:56 EDT
> Could anyone explain to me why some translations use the phrase "gave
>some to be ..." in Ephesians 4:11 whenthe word "some" doesn't occur
>here? When I attempt to translate I get something like this, "he gave
>from the apostles...from the.....from the..." If I am correct (porb.
>not) this is an instrumental genitives used here. The various offices
>of the Body being instruments. According to what I gather out of
>context the thing being given is "gvwsis" and "pistews" through the
>work of the offices in the Church. Anyone care to comment on this?
Slight error: these are accusatives, not genetives. The translators infer
the "some" from the sequence TOUS MEN ... TOUS DE...TOUS DE...TOUS DE....
That sequence distinguishes the following "groups" from one another.
These accusatives are the objects of the verb EDWKEN.
Edgar Krentz, Prof. of New Testament
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 EAST 55TH STREET
CHICAGO, IL 60615
Tel:  256-0752; (H)  947-8105
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