From: Rod Decker (email@example.com)
Date: Thu May 08 1997 - 14:59:27 EDT
I'm not sure if this is a Greek grammar question or a German question.
(Maybe it's a German grammar question!)
I've been working through Reiser's _Syntax und Stil des Markusevangeliums_
and have run into his phrase "asyndetische Parataxe" (esp. in ch. 5)--which
seems contradictory to me. Perhaps I just don't understand what that means;
I've assumed that it is roughly "asyndetic parataxis." But asyndeton refers
to stringing clauses together _without_ a connective, and parataxis refers
to stringing clauses together with KAI. Both can't be true at the same time.
The first place where I noticed this phrase (p. 138) comments that
asyndetische Parataxe "...belongs to the spoken language, while [the use
of] conjunctions [Konjunktionen] is a characteristic of the written
language...." That seems to treat a.P. as equivalent to what I would call
[The text of the statement above, with a bit fuller context: Auch im
Griechischen geho"rt also die asyndetische Parataxe der gesprochenen
Sprache an, wa"hrend Konjunktionen ein Charakteristikum der Scriftsprache
sind und ihr, ...]
Could anyone straighten me out on this one?
Rodney J. Decker Asst. Prof./NT
firstname.lastname@example.org Baptist Bible Seminary
http://www.bbc.edu/DeckrPHP.htm Clarks Summit, PA
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