Meaning of case

From: kdlitwak (
Date: Wed May 14 1997 - 01:51:24 EDT

I just wanted to add my $.01989486 (Pentium) to this discussion. I
have noticed in reading non=biblical Greek this semester that writers
feel a lot fo liberty in both writing elliptically, leaving out
necessary prepositions or using cases in seemingly inappropriate ways.
I can't remember the text, but while reading in Pseudo-Eupolemos a few
weeks ago, I cam across what MUST be an accusative of means, even though
there isn't supposed to be sucha thing. Just now, in Polybius, 2.56.14,
I find
I think this says if anyone who rules (i.e., has) unjust hands he may
suffer for this, thus using TOUTO as an indirect object. After a
semeste of Lucian, THucydiees and Polybuis, I've basically thrown up my
hands in despair at applying the rules or grammatical categories I know
because just as soon as I do that some author goes WAY WAY WAY outside
the lines and uses the cases however he felt like. I'm no classicist, I
admit, but this is what I've observedin what I've trtanslated so far in
situations where there really isn't an alternative. The author is not
using the case in a recognized way. That either means the peson is
using bad grammar or we don't know the rules classical authors worked
by. Any other hypotheses?

Ken Litwak

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