RE: Meaning of case

From: Clayton Bartholomew (
Date: Wed May 14 1997 - 15:18:03 EDT

Ken Litwak Wrote:

 I've basically thrown up my hands in despair at applying the rules or
grammatical categories I know because just as soon as I do that some
author goes WAY WAY WAY outside the lines and uses the cases however he
felt like. I'm no classicist, I admit, but this is what I've observed
what I've translated so far in situations where there really isn't an
alternative. The author is not using the case in a recognized way. That
either means the person is using bad grammar or we don't know the rules
classical authors worked by. Any other hypotheses?

I think Ken is on to something here.

I remember a few years ago when I was translating the Apocalypse of John
reading in the commentaries and grammars that the Apocalypse was a
grammatical nightmare, full of impossible constructions and syntactical
barbarisms. But when Richmond Lattimore, a Homeric scholar, translated
it he didn't find it hard to read. Wonder why?

Clay Bartholomew
Three Tree Point

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