Date: Sat May 17 1997 - 08:36:19 EDT
tim's post did not seem to me to correspond to the point i was making.
someone on anglican said that, if you could render it back into the original,
it would be a translation, but, if not, it would be a paraphrase. i had been
questioning that very assertion with my question and making the same point tim
thought he was making to me.
in the light of the dynamic equivalence rage, however, the question remains
whether the distinction between translation and paraphrase could be made with
bearded bill of asheville <firstname.lastname@example.org>
unca not having approved either whom or thereof.
p.s. material like the TEV that professes to follow d. e. often yields results
neithr dynamic nor equivalent.
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