Re: Subjunctive mood?

From: Jonathan Robie (
Date: Wed Jun 25 1997 - 14:42:34 EDT

At 02:23 PM 6/25/97 -0400, Rod Decker wrote:
>I'm working through a fascinating book this week: Robert Binnick, *Time and
>the Verb: A Guide to Tense and Aspect* (Oxford, 1991). He has an
>interesting explanation of the subjunctive mood that I do not remember
>seeing in NT studies (I wonder if it may not come from Latin grammar [of
>which I know nothing]?)
>"The primarily used in the classical languages to indicate
>the subordination of one verb to another, and has no clearly defined
>'attitudinal' characterization." (p. 67)
>This differs from NT grammars which usually describe it as expressing
>potentiality, uncertainity, etc. It is obviously true in that subjunctives
>appear in subordinate clauses, but is this all that it means? Any thoughts?

Does he explore this with any examples? I'm a very concrete thinker, and I'd
be very interested to see how he analyzes one or two specific uses of the
subjunctive in light of the above definition.


Jonathan Robie
POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703

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