Date: Mon Aug 11 1997 - 16:27:26 EDT
I really have no stance on this issue, and I shouldn't but--however
briefly--into a Norwegain spat; but, a couple of your statements evoked me.
Otto Nordgreen writes on 8/11/97:
> If James considered his rendering OK, why shouldn't we?
What sort of reasoning is this? "If it's good for General Motors, it's good
for the USA?"
> If the tetragram originally was in
> the NT, I find it somewhat amazing that it is not to be found in any single
> NT manuscript (...and there are about 5000 [!] of them...)!
Since the NT writings are a human collection of the religious writings of the
time. Why not consider the hundred-odd other "gospels" and the "Gnostic"
manuscripts as well? Any containing the tetragrammaton may have simply
been selected out (or burned) of the final anthology.
> If the pronunciation - and, indeed, the use -
> of the tetragram was that important, why has YHWH God allowed the tetragram
> to be removed completely from all the early NT mss?
This sort of logic can justify anything, e.g. "If this idea is so
does YHWH God allow it to be propagated over the Internet?"
(I feel much better now.)
Will Wagers firstname.lastname@example.org "Reality is the best metaphor."
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