Re: Romans 12:15 -- anarthrous participles

From: Jonathan Robie (
Date: Tue Aug 26 1997 - 09:47:11 EDT

At 08:35 AM 8/26/97 -0500, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>At 9:58 PM -0500 8/25/97, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>>In both English and German, the rest of the sentence that contains one of
>>these forms has rather weird syntax. In fact, the syntax can be weird enough
>>that people who write signs often can't quite get it right.
>>I wonder if the remaining syntax for a sentence which uses an absolute
>>infinitive is equally unusual in Greek?
>I'm not sure exactly what's being suggested by this, Jonathan; is it that
>once the "normal" construction has been violated, anything goes? I don't
>really think that's what you mean, but if it is, I don't think that's the
>case. Again, see Smyth on infinitive for imperative in conditional
>sentences, #2326e.

No, what I meant is that there may be different rules following such a
usage. In English or German, there *are* clear rules in these contexts, but
they are different from the rules used in most sentences. I have no idea if
that is relevant in this case.


Jonathan Robie
POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:26 EDT