From: Paul Zellmer (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Sep 22 1997 - 12:02:01 EDT
Let me stick my neck out again! In 1 John 2:11, the word many times
translated as, "he goes," is hUPAGEI. Yet, in looking at the usages of
the word in the Gospels, in James, and in Revelation, it seems to allow
an almost unanimous translation of "depart," even though this is not
the translation normally used in the English.
In this case in 1 John, if it were translated, "he departs," I would
see a reference back to the concept in 1 John 2:9, where the man thinks
he is in the light, but is not. He doesn't know where he is departing,
since his eyes are blinded and he thinks he's ok. What do you all
think? Is this translation permissable? Or should I be hesitant to
use it for some reason I do not see?
BTW, Jonathan, it appears to me that verses 7 & 8 of chapter 2 support
your notes in the past concerning conflicting statements in the book.
We have to continually fight the tendency to soften these statements so
that the points that he is making can continue to have their "shock
effect." Of course, we note as you have that these statements do not
make John undecided in the points that he is making.
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab
Ibanag Translation Project
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