Re: John 1:1 QEOS definitely definite?

From: Andrew Kulikovsky (
Date: Mon Sep 22 1997 - 10:41:40 EDT

On Mon, 22 Sep 1997, Carl W. Conrad wrote:

> I thought we had been over this particular ground before. In any case, I
> think the argument here is fallacious: one need only substitute the
> classical illustrative elements ANQRWPOS and SWKRATHS and re-write the
> clause as ANQRWPOS HN hO SWKRATHS to realize that (1) although hO SWKRATHS
> is definite, ANQRWPOS is not; and (2) The translation "Socrates was a human
> being" is not only grammatically possible, but about as literally accurate
> as is possible.

Cral, if we did cover this ground before, I missed it.

what then, is the significance of both nouns being in the nominative? Why
is it ANQROPOS instead of ANQROPON? (or QEOS instead of QEON?)

I don't understand.

> There is nothing in the grammar itself that invalidates "The Word was a
> god" as a translation. It is other factors in the context that will have to
> determine whether this is a legitimate understanding of the clause.

what contextual factors?


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