From: Andrew Kulikovsky (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Sep 24 1997 - 06:20:14 EDT
On Tue, 23 Sep 1997, Jack Kilmon wrote:
> Simply because the vox ipsissima Iesu was Aramaic and not Greek.
> > The (incredibly well documented) canon of scripture we have is the
> > inspired
> > word of God not some theoretical reconstruction...
> Are you saying that the Greek-speaking Matthean author was
> "inspired"moreso than the Aramaic speaking Jesus?
Not at all - it just that we don't have Jesus actual words (other than
potentially wrong reconstructions) so why not stick to the inspired,
inerrant (in my view) words we do have?
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