From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Sep 23 1997 - 08:21:53 EDT
At 5:45 AM -0500 9/23/97, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>At 08:02 AM 9/22/97 -0800, Paul Zellmer wrote:
>>Since the discussion on 1 John continues, let me ask the list for their
>>feelings who is being referred to by EKEINOS in 1 John 2:6. Some
>>English translations very clearly take this as referring to Jesus,
>>possibly because the EN AUTW holds the nearest substantive (?). Yet I
>>can see a strong case for this referring back to the hOS in verse 5.
>>What do you all think, and why?
>This gives me the opportunity to share a potentially shaky theory and see
>what others think of it ;->
>In reading 1 John, I have the impression that the author generally uses
>EKEINOS to refer to Jesus, even in cases where there is no clear antecedent.
>Here are all the verses where EKEINOS is used in 1 John: 2:6, 3:3, 3:5, 3:7,
>3:16, 4:17. Take a look especially at 3:5, where there is no clear reference
>to Jesus, but it must refer to Jesus because Jesus is the one who "appeared
>to take away sins". There are also similar uses of EKEINOS in the gospel of
>This is just my impression, and it may be a little shaky because this isn't
>the way EKEINOS works in textbook Greek, but to me, it seems to be the way
>that EKEINOS works in John's Greek. Incidentally, I haven't run into this in
>the Revelation yet, but I have just finished the 8th chapter.
No, it's not distinctly Johannine. LSJ s.v. EKEINOS "2. to denote
well-known persons, etc."
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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