NT Quotes (Acts 15:17, Eph. 4:8)

From: Eric Weiss (eweiss@acf.dhhs.gov)
Date: Tue Sep 30 1997 - 14:33:05 EDT

In Acts 15:17, James quotes from Amos 9:11-12, similar to the LXX. The
LXX doesn't agree with either the text or the meaning of the Hebrew text
of this passage, but allowing for the fact, based on the DSS, etc., that
the Hebrew text wasn't "fixed" at this time, for James to use the LXX or
a Hebrew text upon which the LXX was based does not seem unreasonable.

However, when I go to Ephesians 4:8, where the author quotes from Psalm
68:18 (68:19 in the Hebrew), the author's translation of "He gave gifts
to men" (a crucial meaning, to me, for his explanation of the giving of
"apostles, prophets," etc., in 4:11) agrees NEITHER with the LXX
(LAMBANO, if I remember right) NOR the Hebrew (LQH) - which, to me, can
only be translated as "He took/received gifts by/from men." My BHS
Hebrew text or Bretton LXX don't give the author's rendering as being
based on a variant of the text.

My question is (for those of you who also know Hebrew): Is there ANY WAY
the Hebrew of Psalm 68 could have been "corrupted" or "misread" (e.g., a
Daleth being read as a Resh, a Yod as a Waw, etc.) - or remembered
wrongly, if he was writing from memory - by the author of Ephesians to
give the translation he does? Are there any obscure variants of Eph. 4:8
(UBS says to see Ps. 67:19 (68?) in the LXX, but I don't recall my
Bretton LXX having a variant here - does Rahlf's?) that DO conform to
the Hebrew text (though this would probably undermine the author's
argument in 4:11)? I DON'T EVEN want to start a discussion on the
implications of this for the doctrine of "inerrancy," but I would like
any Greek- (and Greek/Hebrew-) related help on reconciling the
significant disparity between the NT and the LXX and Hebrew texts and
meanings here.

"Eric Weiss"

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