Re: Nonexistent forms?

From: Rod Decker (
Date: Tue Oct 07 1997 - 07:08:32 EDT

As I've poked around a bit in this dept., I have two specific queries.

1, I've noted the perfect subjunctive forms (3 in the NT, all
periphrastics), but what about perfect optatives? Do such exist in the NT?
I couldn't find any, but Bowne's *Paradigms & Principal Parts for the Greek
NT* lists the (periphrastic) forms (LELUMENOS EIHN, etc.). What about
extra-biblical use, which I assume must exist?

2. Does the pluperfect ever occur outside the indicative in extra-biblical
Greek? I haven't been able to locate any refs. to such, but I'd appreciate
any confirmation or denial of that.



 Rodney J. Decker Baptist Bible Seminary
 Asst. Prof./NT P O Box 800 Clarks Summit PA 18411 USA

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