From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Oct 12 1997 - 21:06:13 EDT
At 7:41 PM -0500 10/12/97, Paul S. Dixon wrote:
>When Jesus was asked:
> 1) SU OUN EI hO hIOS TOU QEOU (Lk 22:70),
> 2) SU EI hO BASILEUS TWN IOUDAIWN (Lk 23:3),
>He responded respectively,
> 1) hUMEIS LEGETE hOTI EGW EIMI, and
> 2) SU LEGEIS.
>(Compare Mt 26:64, SU EIPAS and Mt 27:11, SU LEGEIS, respectively).
>Is this a standard Greek way of saying "yes"? The NASV has "Yes, I am"
>(Lk 22:70), "It is as you say" (Lk 23:3), "you have said it yourself" (Mt
>26:64), and "It is as you say" (Mt 27:11).
No, I think it's fair to say that it is NOT the standard Greek way of
>Am wondering if there is possibly more to it than the English
>translations seem to indicate. Is this a way Christ has of intentionally
>veiling some of His glory to His nonbelieving accusers? If He intended
>to simply answer "yes," then why didn't He say something like, EGW EIMI,
This is one of those questions that seems to me fun to speculate about but
hard to say anything very definitive about. I've read a number of comments
on this question but have never found any of them particularly convincing.
>Is there not a simpler way of saying "yes" in Greek?
NAI. Yes, that's the word, the normal word, and it even appears in the NT
in the passage cited by Jonathan and glossed by myself in the chicken-liver
exchange of last night. There's also the old standard Platonic
conversational response to a question demanding a "yes" answer: PWS GAR OU?
or "What else?"
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
email@example.com OR firstname.lastname@example.org
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:33 EDT