From: Paul S. Dixon (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Oct 12 1997 - 20:41:04 EDT
When Jesus was asked:
1) SU OUN EI hO hIOS TOU QEOU (Lk 22:70),
2) SU EI hO BASILEUS TWN IOUDAIWN (Lk 23:3),
He responded respectively,
1) hUMEIS LEGETE hOTI EGW EIMI, and
2) SU LEGEIS.
(Compare Mt 26:64, SU EIPAS and Mt 27:11, SU LEGEIS, respectively).
Is this a standard Greek way of saying "yes"? The NASV has "Yes, I am"
(Lk 22:70), "It is as you say" (Lk 23:3), "you have said it yourself" (Mt
26:64), and "It is as you say" (Mt 27:11).
Am wondering if there is possibly more to it than the English
translations seem to indicate. Is this a way Christ has of intentionally
veiling some of His glory to His nonbelieving accusers? If He intended
to simply answer "yes," then why didn't He say something like, EGW EIMI,
or EIMI? Is there not a simpler way of saying "yes" in Greek?
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