Date: Wed Oct 29 1997 - 10:45:03 EST
In a message dated 97-10-28 15:47:03 EST, you write:
> I recently came across a passage in Mt 2:13 (the last clause) MELLEI GAR
> hHRWiDHS ZHTEIN TO PAIDION *TOU APOLESAI AUTOU*. I scratched my head over
> that one for a while. I knew that infinitives could take the article and
> function in a sentence much as a noun (be the subject or object of a
> verb, etc.) but why the genitive case? Well I reluctantly (I don't like to
> ask for directions or look at maps either) took out my reference grammar
> (Goodwin) and started reading up on infinitives with the article. I came
> across this description: ( 1548) "The infinitive with TOU may express a
> purpose, generally a negative purpose, where with ordinary genitives
> is regularly used."
> Question? Is this the usage here? If so, it is a positive, not a negative,
> purpose being expressed. Also, how common is this construction in the New
> Testament? I don't recall coming across it before.
As far as how common the construction is, In "Infinitive in Biblical Greek"
Votaw found 33 genitive articular infinitives which he suggested were used
for purpose. They occur mostly in Matthew, Luke and Acts.
PhD Student, Roehampton/Univ of Surrey
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:35 EDT