Date: Tue Oct 28 1997 - 14:59:47 EST
I recently came across a passage in Mt 2:13 (the last clause) MELLEI GAR
hHRWiDHS ZHTEIN TO PAIDION *TOU APOLESAI AUTOU*. I scratched my head over
that one for a while. I knew that infinitives could take the article and
function in a sentence much as a noun (be the subject or object of a finite
verb, etc.) but why the genitive case? Well I reluctantly (I don't like to
ask for directions or look at maps either) took out my reference grammar
(Goodwin) and started reading up on infinitives with the article. I came
across this description: ( 1548) "The infinitive with TOU may express a
purpose, generally a negative purpose, where with ordinary genitives hENEKA
is regularly used."
Question? Is this the usage here? If so, it is a positive, not a negative,
purpose being expressed. Also, how common is this construction in the New
Testament? I don't recall coming across it before.
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