From: Theodore H. Mann (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Jan 22 1998 - 23:10:10 EST
I read the following passage in the January issue of Affirmation &
Critique (Living Stream Ministry: http://www.lsm.org):
Revelation 1:1 begins with "the revelation of Jesus Christ."
Expositors of this book have held different interpretations of this
phrase. At issue here is the simple Greek phrase APOKALUYSIS IHSOU
CRISTOU. The precise meaning turns on the genitive "of Jesus Christ,"
which, if taken as the objective genitive, denotes the manifestation, or
disclosure, of Jesus Christ, but if taken as the subjective or possessive
genitive, denotes Jesus Christ merely as the medium of the revelation.
Although certain respected scholars are of the latter school, their
arguments are far from conclusive, but in general incomplete.
The article, of course, takes the former view. It seems to me that
the remainder of verse 1 makes it fairly clear that the latter view is
intended. Is it grammatically possible to take the phrase either way? I
would appreciate your insights.
Dr. Theodore "Ted" H. Mann
Orchard Lake, Michigan
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