Re: Rev.1:1

From: F. Holly Mitchell (
Date: Fri Jan 23 1998 - 10:55:42 EST


> At issue here is the simple Greek phrase APOKALUYSIS IHSOU
> CRISTOU. ...but if taken as the subjective or possessive
> genitive, denotes Jesus Christ merely as the medium of the revelation.
> Although certain respected scholars are of the latter school, their
> arguments are far from conclusive, but in general incomplete.
> It seems to me that the remainder of verse 1 makes it fairly clear that
> the latter view is intended.

Can anyone point me to these "certain respected scholars"? If, indeed,
APOKALUYSIS IHSOU CRISTOU is the subjective or possessive genitive, that
indicates (EMOI) that Jesus is not "merely" but fully the medium or
manifestation of revelation.

BTW, isn't this the argument presented in the opening of the Hebrews
Epistle, that God's Word no longer comes to us POLUMERWS KAI POLUTROPWS,
little by little and in many ways, but ELALHSEN hHMIn EN UIWi?

Interesting question, Ted.

God Bless,
Ginger Ferguson
Univ. of the Ozarks

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