RE: John 1:1

From: Bruce Tetley (
Date: Sun Feb 01 1998 - 15:27:33 EST

> Peter Phillips wrote:
> >I wonder whether we can rescue this from theology and return to Greek.
> > There is little evidence whatsoever that the actual Greek word LOGOS was
> >ever used prior to the Johannine material to refer to a person. ...
Carl Conrad wrote,
> This may be so, but some would argue that Hellenistic Jewish notions of
> HOKKMA/SOFIA which appears in allegorical personalization in Proverbs 8 and
> in the Wisdom of Solomon are antecedents of the LOGOS conception in both
> John's prologue and Philo--and if this is so, that might incline the first
> readers of the Johannine prologue to understand the prologue in a
> personalized manner.

In addition to Carl,

  Trinity Journal 18 NS (1997)


 Jesus Christ for John is "grace and truth" of a higher order. The
attributes of Torah are the attributes of the Johannine Logos.
quoting Barret, "the description of the LOGOS and his relation
to God in the prologue corresponds exactly to much that is said by
the Rabbis about the Torah."

Bruce Tetley

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