From: Nicholas Corduan (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Feb 05 1998 - 09:53:07 EST
> >eg Smalley in his Word commentary renders the verse as follows:
> >"What was there from the beginning - which we have heard, which we have seen
> >with our eyes, which we have observed and felt with our hands - is our
> >the word of life."
> Even given the broad understanding, would it be appropriate to refer to all
> the pronouns as nominative?
I don't think so... While Greek does allow for "attraction" sometimes, the
general rule, I believe, is that the case of the pronoun is determined by
its role in the clause, not its role in the broader sentence. So,
theoretically, since the antecedent of the pronouns is a nominative, they
could be as well, but to be grammatically proper, they should be
accustaive since they are all the objects of verbs. "we have heard
which," for instance.
At least that's my understanding...
--- Nick Corduan "...there is as much dignity in tilling at a field as in writing a poem." (email@example.com) --Booker T. Washington
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