Re: hO in 1 John 1:1

From: Dale M. Wheeler (
Date: Thu Feb 05 1998 - 20:58:51 EST

Benjamin Raymond wrote:

>But I
>can't see how hO can be the subject (compound or otherwise) of an active
>verb of which it is simultaneously the object!

I can't either... I'd say that its not a question of its possible, but as
far as I can tell its *impossible* for these relative pronouns to be
the subjects of these three verbs, "We have heard..., we have seen...,
we have beheld...". The problem is not whether they are masc or neut
(they are clearly neuter) or ambiguously nom or acc, but rather the
fact that the verbs are *1ST PERSON PLURAL*, and there is no way in
any Greek that I can ever recall seeing where a "We" form of a verb
has a NEUTER SINGULAR subject. And since they can't be the subjects
of these verbs, they must be accusative objects of these transitive


Dale M. Wheeler, Ph.D.
Research Professor in Biblical Languages Multnomah Bible College
8435 NE Glisan Street Portland, OR 97220
Voice: 503-251-6416 FAX:503-254-1268 E-Mail:

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