From: Steven Cox (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Feb 02 1998 - 08:41:16 EST
I dunno, I'd always read TO GAR GRAMMA APOKTEINEI as TO GAR GRAMMA [TWN
PLAKWN LIQINWN] APOKTEINEI, rather than reading it as an
indictment of verbal literalism per se, as Paul would have been
Gal 3:16 OU LEGEI KAI TOIS SPERMASIN, hWS EPI POLLWN
ALL' hWS EF' hENOS "KAI TWi SPERMATI SOU"
Gen 17:8 KAI TWi SPERMATI SOU (LXX)
"Is an LXX quote a quote?" Maybe that depends on how often an LXX
quote coincides with [Hebrew] Dead Sea Scrolls. NA26 doesn't
mention DSS in the apparatus so how does one tell?:
Heb1:6 KAI PROSKUNHSATWSAN AUTWi PANTES AGGELOI QEOU
Deu32:43 KAI PROSKUNHSATWSAN AUTWi PANTES AGGELOI QEOU (LXX/DSS)
Deu32:43 for he will avenge the blood of his servants (MT)
At 12:24 98/02/02 +0000, Brian E. Wilson wrote:
>>Andrew S. Kulikovsky asks:
>>Are all the OT quotations in the NT from the LXX, or are some directly
>>from the Hebrew?
>Are there any word-for-word exact quotations from the LXX in the NT? Is
>not the LXX used in the NT not so much for quotations as for allusions?
>Paul, and other NT writers who allude to the Old Testament whether in
>Hebrew or Greek, were usually not too bothered about the exact wording
>of any text they were adapting. They were not literalists.
>Paul himself wrote (2 Cor 3:6b) - TO GAR GRAMMA APOKTEINEI - "for the
>written letters bring death" (Jerusalem Bible translation). I agree with
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