From: Jeffrey Gibson (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Feb 10 1998 - 19:43:36 EST
On Tue, 10 Feb 1998 Revcraigh@aol.com wrote:
> In a message dated 2/10/98 8:56:30 PM, you wrote:
> <<I understand that Greek prepositions have
> a very, very wide range of usages, but if one is _in_ a time period
> can it be said that one _preceded_ the time period ?
> Well, it seems to me, the fact that the LOGOS preceded the beginning is
> contained in the "tense" of the verb HN = was existing, or am I reading
> something into that that I shouldn't be?
> Also the fact that John goes on to say that all things were created through
> Him and without Him nothing was created. If in fact ARXHi refers to the
> creation of all things (Gen. 1:1) then the LOGOS *must* have preceded the
> ARXHi or He would have been part of the creation. I think that the context
> then makes it clear that the LOGOS was existing (already) when creation
> happened = EN ARXHi.
Latent Arius supporters unite! It seems we have no spilled over into
the very debate that Arius and his followers summed up in the little
ditty that they used to sing in the streets of Alexadria:
If you want the logos doctine,
I can serve it Oh so hot!
O there was a time, yes there was a time
when the Logos/Son was not!
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