Re: John 1:1

Date: Thu Feb 12 1998 - 20:09:03 EST

Dear Greg:

You make some insightful observations. I offer the following in reply.

<< How is "time" defined in Biblical Greek? We use the references of
 light and dark and the positions of the earth and sun relative to each
 other to delineate segments called "time" (in a 'nutshell'). What does
 the Biblical language indicate is used
 as reference points for "time" in the spiritual realm?>>

I am not aware of anything in the Bible that explains how spirits count time.
However, we do know that 'one day with God is as a thousand years, and a
thousand years as one day.' (2 Peter 3) So God does have some measurement of
time, but it is far different from ours, in terms of length, at least.

<< It seems to me that without some kind of contrast you cannot have what
 we call "time."
 If the sun simply stayed in the same, identical spatial relationship
 with the earth
 then we would never, I would think, even conceive of "time.">>

Oh, I am sure we would find some other means of marking the changes we
experience and see taking place around us.

<< Is there even a Biblical linguistic answer, or hint, for that matter,
 concerning time? What
 does it mean that "time shall be no more," as is stated in the Biblical
 Gregory Lee Cooper

Which text in particular are you referring to? Also, for the record, I have no
probelm conceiving of Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1 as a reference to the beginning
of time from a physical standpoint.

Greg Stafford
University of Wisconsin

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