RE: John 1:1

From: Jonathan Robie (
Date: Thu Feb 12 1998 - 20:14:41 EST

Do you have a reading knowledge of biblical Greek? In your posts, you don't
seem to refer to specific Greek words, or to specific texts. B-Greek
presupposes a reading knowledge of Greek, which is kind of necessary to be
able to discuss this kind of question meaningfully.


At 04:34 PM 2/12/98 -0800, you wrote:
>How is "time" defined in Biblical Greek? We use the references of
>light and dark and the positions of the earth and sun relative to each
>other to delineate segments called "time" (in a 'nutshell'). What does
>the Biblical language indicate is used
>as reference points for "time" in the spiritual realm?
>It seems to me that without some kind of contrast you cannot have what
>we call "time."
>If the sun simply stayed in the same, identical spatial relationship
>with the earth
>then we would never, I would think, even conceive of "time."
>Is there even a Biblical linguistic answer, or hint, for that matter,
>concerning time? What
>does it mean that "time shall be no more," as is stated in the Biblical
>Gregory Lee Cooper
>>Sent: Thursday, February 12, 1998 3:59 PM
>>Subject: Re: John 1:1
>> On day 1, God created light and according to general relativity,
>> he would have also created time. Hence "the beginning" is the beginning
>> of all time.
>> cheers,
>> Andrew>.
>> No, it would only refer to the beginning of time as counted from a
>perspective. It says nothing about "time" as it relates to the spiritual
>> Greg Stafford
>> University of Wisconsin
Texcel Research

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