Re: MENEIN in 1 John 2:6

From: Benjamin Raymond (
Date: Sun Feb 15 1998 - 15:01:46 EST

At 06:30 AM 2/15/98 -0600, Carl Conrad wrote:
>At 12:26 AM -0600 2/15/98, Benjamin Raymond wrote:
>>Would anyone be so kind as to remind me when the moveable nu is an option?
>Off the top of my head, I can only think of two situations:
> (a) A verb form ending in an epsilon or iota (single vowel, not
> (b) A dative plural (3d decl. in SI
>I would add that EI never takes a movable Nu, and also that in better
>writers the movable Nu is used most in two situations: (1) when a pause
>immediately ensues--as at sentence end and where one would have a comma
>expected; (2) when an immediately following word begins with a vowel.

Good. The first point you've given is especially interesting. I'll look
for that.

>>Assuming MENEIN here is an infinitive (which I'm still convinced it is),
>>how does it function? Does it complete the thought of the participle
>>LEGWN, something like (though probably no translated like) the English
>>construction, "The one who claims to remain?"
>Yes, you've underestood it rightly. A verb of speaking can be used with an
>infinitive and a subject in this manner. LEGW isn't one that's commonly
>used thus, but that's what is happening here. In such situations, the
>subject is not expressed if it is identical with the subject of the main
>clause; if it's someone other than the subject of the main clause, then the
>subject will be accusative. In earlier Greek you'll much more likely see
>FASKW functioning this way (the iterative of FHMI) than LEGW.

Many thanks,
Benjamin Raymond
senior, Harding University School of Biblical Studies
HU Box 11871, 900 E Center
Searcy, AR 72149-0001

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:03 EDT