From: Paul S. Dixon (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Feb 14 1998 - 03:32:35 EST
On Sat, 14 Feb 1998 00:31:36 -0500 Jonathan Robie <email@example.com>
>The phrase MIAS GUNAIKOS is used in these three verses:
>1Tim 3:2 1Tim 3:12 Titu 1:6
>There seems to be a question as to how this is interpreted. Is this any
>less ambiguous than the English phrase "one wife"? I've heard people say
>that it "obviously" means one wife at a time, but I've heard others say
>that it means not remarried, and still others say never divorced.
Still others say, a one-woman man, that is, faithful to his wife.
>Does the Greek phrase clearly mean one of these to the exclusion of
The phrase hENOS ANDROS GUNH (1 tim 5:9) may be determinative. There are
some pretty good reasons for taking the phrase here to mean that she had
been married but once. Check commentaries for this.
If this is the correct interpretation in 5:9, then MIAS GUNAIKOS ANDRA in
3:2, which is certainly parallel in thought and construction, probably
should be taken likewise, that is, the man had been married but once. A
tough call, but worthy of serious consideration.
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