From: Jonathan Robie (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Feb 20 1998 - 08:55:30 EST
At 08:10 AM 2/20/98 -0500, Brrolan@ra.rockwell.com wrote:
>My confusion stems from not understanding how you define the cause of
>adultery here. It seems to me that your argument is that the adultery
>stems from [not] "remain[ing] under the husband's authority." If this is a
>correct understanding, are you saying that any sexual relationship for the
>wife would be permissable as long as the husband approved?
Well, this is fairly academic for me, since I wouldn't approve of much!
But that's not what I'm saying, I'm merely saying that this passage does
not speak to the issue. I think it is dangerous to speak where scripture is
silent, but the Bible is fairly clear about many sexual practices. And it
is also fairly clear about divorce.
The most relevant verse I can think of is this:
1 Cor 6:16 (NASU) Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a
prostitute is one body [with her]? For He says, "The two shall become one
Of course, this does not say that he is then married to the prostitute, but
I think I would have to argue that a man with two wives is "one flesh" with
each of them.
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