Date: Fri Feb 20 1998 - 08:10:46 EST
Sigh. I guess my verbal skills must be worse than I thought. I have
absolutely no disagreement with the assertion that Romans 7:2 (Greek,
English, archaic or modern) refers to a woman leaving her husband and
taking up with another. I had said on 2/18/98 that "I will readily grant
that polyandry was not even thought of in the writing of this verse."
My confusion stems from not understanding how you define the cause of
adultery here. It seems to me that your argument is that the adultery
stems from [not] "remain[ing] under the husband's authority." If this is a
correct understanding, are you saying that any sexual relationship for the
wife would be permissable as long as the husband approved?
Bret R. Rolan
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