From: clayton stirling bartholomew (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Mar 22 1998 - 08:20:14 EST
Several days ago I was mulling over line 15 in Agamemnon (Aeschylus)
15 TO MH BEBAIWS BLEFARA SUMBALEIN hUPNWi
and wondering why BEBAIWS was modifying a noun. I didn't take me long to find
this in Smyth #1096 and #1097. Then my thoughts turned to the NT and I decided
to see if adverbs ever functioned as adjectives in the NT. I could not
immediately find anything in BDF so I scraped the dust off of A.T. Robertson
and there it was on page 547. Robertson gives several examples, the first is
Romans 3:26 EV TWi NUN KAIRWi.
I don't know why I get excited about this kind of thing, other than the fact
that it helps support the "form not equal to function" approach to syntax.
-- Clayton Stirling Bartholomew Three Tree Point P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
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