Re: Jn 21:15-17

From: Jim West (
Date: Mon Apr 20 1998 - 18:38:01 EDT

At 05:58 PM 4/20/98 -0400, you wrote:

>Thanks, Rolf. Are there not at least a few occasions where Christ
>clearly speaks in Aramaic (e.g., Mt 27:47, Mk 5:41, etc.)? Are there
>places where He speaks in Hebrew?
>Paul Dixon

There has been some discussion in the not too distant past in some corners
of the scholarly world that would suggest that the Aramaic residue of the
Jesus tradition stems, perhaps, from some early Christians who believed that
saying the same words that Jesus "might" have spoken had a certain "magical"
power. I.e., if you take account of the context of the Aramaic words you
discover that they all occur in miracle stories.

As a result these is some uncertainty as to whether or not these are ipssima
verba of Jesus or the formulas of some early church members. A fascinating
window that sheds light on this topic is an examination of the early
christian magic texts.

All this to say that the langauge spoken by Jesus, whether it was Greek,
Aramaic, or Hebrew, is still on the agenda for research.



Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology

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