Re: I Cor. 1:20

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Wed May 06 1998 - 15:56:29 EDT

At 2:11 PM -0500 5/6/98, Jim West wrote:
>At 02:03 PM 5/6/98 -0700, you wrote:
>>"Where is the wise man? Where is the scribe? Where is the debator of
>>this age?" (NASB)
>>Why are these nouns usually translated with the definite article when it
>>is lacking in the Greek? Does it have to do with the proper English

If I may pedantically cross the I and dot the T here (if you take my
meaning), we do tend in English to use the article with a noun in the
singular when it is generalized; the same meaning, however, could have been
given in English with a generalizing plural WITHOUT an article: "Where are
the sages? Where are the scribes? Where are the orators?"

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 OR

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