From: Kevin W. Woodruff (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu May 07 1998 - 20:09:48 EDT
The appeal to Psalm 12:7 is specious. The correct antecedents to the "them"
of verse sevenare the "poor" and "needy" of verse five and not the"words of
the Lord." This the position taken by C. H. Spurgeon, Scroggie, and Franz
Delitzsch. Check your commentaries.
At 06:31 PM 5/7/98 +0000, you wrote:
>This question is not related *directly* to Greek but to biblical
>translation in general. If you feel that it is off topic, just
>respond to me in private.
>My question is this: One of the big arguments of AV-Only people is
>that God preserves every single word that He originally inspired.
>They often appeal to such verses as Psalm 12:7 & Matthew 5:8 to
>support this view. Assuming that such an application of those
>scriptures is correct, how do they apply to bible translation? For
>instance, I think it's safe to say (although I am certainly no
>linguist) that the original words of any document in any language
>are sometimes lost in the translation process. Word for word
>translations are not always possible due to occasional differences
>between the source and target languages. Since that is the case,
>how do the Scriptures that speak of God's preserving every single
>word -- down to the very last jot and tittle -- apply to the work of
>Bible translation? Aren't there some words in the original biblical
>Hebrew and Greek that are either lost in the translation process or
>that require a greater number of words in the target language in
>order to make sense? And if this is the case, how can every
>*original* word of God be said to be preserved in those instances?
>What think ye?
Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div.
Library Director/Reference Librarian
Cierpke Memorial Library
Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary
1815 Union Ave.
Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404
United States of America
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