From: Jim West (email@example.com)
Date: Thu May 07 1998 - 16:24:20 EDT
At 03:40 PM 5/7/98 +0000, you wrote:
>To whom it may concern:
>I am a second semester greek student under Dr. Carlton Winbery
Well then listen to him! He knows what he's talking about.
> at Louisiana
>College. A debate arose in class as we were traslating the first epistle
>of John and I was urged to consult this address. My question is this: In
>chapter 5 verse 16, could we not translate "aitasei" as "something that we
>My argument is based upon the transition that the author gives
>at the end of the verse to the word "erotasa". In my dictonary (United
>Bible Society, 1993), aitasei seems to be a word of asking for something
>that is required. The word erotasa, on the other hand, seems to be a word
The context here will not allow such a reading as this. "If anyone should
see his brother sinning a sin not to death, he will require...." etc? It
makes no sense. In fact, it goes against the grain of the epistle altogether.
>I would also note that the same word (aitasei) is used in John 14:14 and in
Thats fine. But just because one author uses a word one way does not mean
that another uses it exactly the same way (and yes, John and 1 John are from
>I would be very interested in your opinion.
Well, that's a nice a priori!
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology
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