From: Carlton Winbery (email@example.com)
Date: Fri May 08 1998 - 13:34:33 EDT
Ted Mann wrote;
>I have a book in which the author translates 1 John 3:9 as, "Whoever
>continues begotten of God does not practice sin." Is there any
>justification at all for this translation? If so, what is it?
I would say that the writer got the participle and the main verb mixed up.
hO GEGENNHMENOS EK TOU QEOU hAMARTIAN OU POIEI, should be translated "Who
has been begotten by God does not practive sin." The main verb is present
and probably indicates incomplete action, as the word "does practice" would
indicate. The present infinitive hAMARTANEIN probably indicates the same.
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Pineville, LA 71359
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:43 EDT