From: Jim West (email@example.com)
Date: Fri May 08 1998 - 12:39:52 EDT
At 11:53 AM 5/8/98 -0400, you wrote:
>I have a book in which the author translates 1 John 3:9 as, "Whoever
>continues begotten of God does not practice sin." Is there any
>justification at all for this translation? If so, what is it?
No. Such a translation would require an imperfect, aorist ingressive, or
even present tense verb. The verb here is, as you know, a perfect. When
the author of 1 John uses the perfect tense he seems to always signify a
past action with a present result.
To you as well.
(neo-positivist at large)
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology
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