Re: 1 John 3:9

Date: Sat May 09 1998 - 12:17:26 EDT

Bill Ross wrote:

> >If OU DUNATAI hAMARTANEIN [is not able to be sinning] means "is unable
> >to go on sinning", [I think you are accrurate in this] then the tense
> >relationship of the infinitive form to the action itself of the
> >infinitive verb must be foreward [future] in time, which is supported
> >by the sense of ongoingness in the present infinitive, [for
> >ongoingness 'ongoes' into the future]. In English, our infinitive
> >form [to be, to do, etc] supports this idea with the 'to's ~ "To be,
> >or not to be..." is clearly a pensive future use of our infinitive,
> >for instance.
> I think you are saying that the present tense must go on into the future...

YES!! But remember that the context here is the infinitive form of
the verb.
> >Now if we think about this musically, in English, our little 'to' acts
> >like a little 'grace note' that introduces the arpeggio of the chord
> >in the present, but the chord itself in the aorist, both of them
> >following the 'to' and thus to the future of it.
> and that what occurs in the present is the "setup" to it?

Yes, in the infinitive.

My basic question, here, is: "Does the infinitive have tense value?"

George Blaisdell

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