accusative in Gal 1.9

From: Ian Scott (
Date: Fri Jun 12 1998 - 15:36:04 EDT

Dear b-Greekers,

I'm working on Galatians 1.9 and am confused by what seems to be the use
of the accusative case for the indirect object. The problem clause is
this one:

        ei tis umas euaggelizetai par' o parelabete

Is umas to be considered the direct object of euaggelizetai, or is it an
indirect object (to you). In the latter case I suppose the direct object
would be an implied "Gospel" which serves as the understood antecedent of
the relative pronoun in o parelabete. Or am I just reading this wrong?

Thanks for your help,

Ian W. Scott
Grad student in Religious Studies, McMaster University

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