From: Steven Cox (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Jun 27 1998 - 07:47:23 EDT
At 00:38 98/06/27 -0700, firstname.lastname@example.org wrote:
>26:39 does indeed have Jesus prostrate in supplication to hO QEOS,
>asking for something for himself. An inferior asking His Superior.
>He is not, apparently, PROSKUNEWing hO QEOS in this action, and if I
>understand this right, he never does. Men do PROSKUNEW Him, and hO
>QEOS, but not He hO QEOS. I have no idea where all this leads, but it
>sure has my attention for the meaning of this term.
You don't think that Christ is applying Deu5:9/6:13
to himself in Matt4:10?
>It just feels outrageous to me that Jesus does not once, in the entire
>GNT, worship His Father. I just don't get it. Jesus Christ does not
>worship God??? Why??? What relationship between them would preclude
Matt 17:25 maybe? Presumably the prince would receive
PROSKUNHSIS on the same basis as a king. Such worship
was ascribed to the Messiah LXX Is49:7
KAI PROSKUNHSOUSIN AUTW, **ENEKEN KURIOU** hOTI PISTOS
ESTIN hO hAGIOS ISRAHL
For the same reason even Israel was worshipped sometimes
cf.45:14. Perhaps something similar was happening in
Classical use (Herodotus etc.) as well?
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