Re: Semantic range of PROSKUNEW (LXX)

From: Steven Cox (
Date: Sat Jun 27 1998 - 07:47:23 EDT

At 00:38 98/06/27 -0700, wrote:
>26:39 does indeed have Jesus prostrate in supplication to hO QEOS,
>asking for something for himself. An inferior asking His Superior.
>He is not, apparently, PROSKUNEWing hO QEOS in this action, and if I
>understand this right, he never does. Men do PROSKUNEW Him, and hO
>QEOS, but not He hO QEOS. I have no idea where all this leads, but it
>sure has my attention for the meaning of this term.

        You don't think that Christ is applying Deu5:9/6:13
        to himself in Matt4:10?

>It just feels outrageous to me that Jesus does not once, in the entire
>GNT, worship His Father. I just don't get it. Jesus Christ does not
>worship God??? Why??? What relationship between them would preclude

        Matt 17:25 maybe? Presumably the prince would receive
        PROSKUNHSIS on the same basis as a king. Such worship
        was ascribed to the Messiah LXX Is49:7

        For the same reason even Israel was worshipped sometimes
        cf.45:14. Perhaps something similar was happening in
        Classical use (Herodotus etc.) as well?


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