1 Tim 2:12

From: Eric Vaughan (z_vaughanje@titan.sfasu.edu)
Date: Tue Jun 30 1998 - 21:07:06 EDT

Howdy from Texas,

   I haven't kept up with this list for a long time, so if I'm asking a
question that has already been answered recently, I apologize. My question
regarding 1 Tim 2:12 is, does "man" (sing. gen.) have anything to do with
"teach" (pres. inf. act.)? ANDROS, obviously goes with AUQENTEIN, but does
it also go with DIDASKEIN? Wouldn't DIDASKEIN call for an accusative?

   I'm not really interested at this point what the context leads you to
believe. I'm more concerned with the grammatical structure of the sentence.
Does the GRAMMAR imply "I do not allow a woman to teach a man" or "I do not
allow a woman to teach."... period?
   I am a beginner in Greek (and have been for a long time), so please
forgive me if this is a ridiculously easy question.


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