From: RHutchin@aol.com
Date: Thu Aug 06 1998 - 17:12:59 EDT
In 2 Peter 1:1 we have:...PISTIN EN DIKAIOSUNH TOU QEOU HMWN KAI SWTHROS IHSOU
CRISTOU.
Is the translation of EN certain.
The translation is normally given as *through righteousness* so that Peter
seems to be saying that one obtains faith in Christ through, or as a result
of, the righteousness of Christ.
Could the translation legitimately be *in righteousness* so that we have Peter
directing his letter to those who, like him, have faith in, or believe that,
Christ is righteous?
Does the Greek demand the first translation or exclude the second?
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