Re: Romans 16:7/Jonathan's Post

From: Russell Van Zandt (
Date: Fri Aug 14 1998 - 22:52:54 EDT

I try to keep my basic questions to myself but I can't figure this one
out and it's keeping me awake at night. (By the way I tried to look
at the archives but the search engine is down and after 20 minutes of
searching archive by archive I gave up.)

The footnote for Romans 16:7 in UBS GNT 4th edition revised seems to
say that IOUNIAN could be either male or female depending on how it is
accented. It says it is masculine if the accent is a circumflex above
the alpha and it's feminine if the accent is an acute over the second

Is that somehow related to the (bogus) Iunias which has been
mentioned? What is the principle by which Greek words change genders
based on their accents? Finally, if the earliest manuscripts don't
have accents and that's the only way to tell masculine and feminine
apart, then how can anyone know for sure which the original authors

Russell Van Zandt

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