Re: the sense of APOLEIA

From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Tue Aug 18 1998 - 18:16:11 EDT

At 08:57 PM 8/18/98 -0500, you wrote:
> my question is, can
>one sense of APOLEIA be "annihilation" and what are some clear examples of
>this sense? Basically, what I am wondering is whether the word leans more
>toward destruction in the sense of ruin, destruction in the sense of
>annihilation, or can it run the whole range from ruin to annihilation?

>Roy Millhouse
>MA/NT cand.


It may be an instructive exercise to look at the Vulgate in any particular
passage which interests you using the word <gk>apwleia</gk>. In general,
the Vulgate renders <gk>apwleia</gk> with either <lt>perditio</lt> or
<lt>interitus</lt>. The usefulness of the Vulgate as a very early
"Commentary" on the text cannot be overestimated. When one reads it, one
sees how some very early Christians understood their Bible.

<gk>apwleia</gk> is used in Mt 7:13, 26:8,
Mk 14:4
Jn 17:12
Ac 8:20
Rom 9:22
Phil 1:28, 3:19
2 th 2:3
I Tim 6:9
Heb 10:29
2 Pe 2:1, 3:7, 3:16
Rev 17:8, 11

It probably will surprise no one when I say that each of these verses must
be examined in context in order to understand how <gk>apwleia</gk> is used.



Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible
Quartz Hill School of Theology

"es ist Schuld und VerhŐngnis aller Kirchen, dass sie zu viel Dogmatik und
zu wenig Jčngerschaft praktizieren" E. KŐsemann

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